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Hebrews 7:11
If therefore perfection were by the Levitical priesthood, (for under it the people received the law,) what further need that another priest should rise after the order of Melchisedec, and not be called after the order of Aaron?
If, then, perfection had been attainable through the Levitical priesthood – and it was under this priesthood that the people received the Law – why was it still necessary that a priest of a different order should appear, a priest of the order of Melchizedek and not of the order of Aaron?
If, then, perfection had been attainable through the Levitical priesthood – and it was under this priesthood that the people received the Law – why was it still necessary that a priest of a different order should appear, a priest of the order of Melchizedek and not of the order of Aaron?